I need your help. Read the following:



Team A has 3rd down and 10 on their own 40 yard line. They pass the ball and it is intercepted by Team B. As the runner is running toward the end zone he fumbles the ball at the 15 yard line and Team A recovers the fumble and it down at their own 15 yard line.



Is Team A awarded a fresh set of downs (1st and 10 from their own 15) or do they have 4 down and 35.



It was my thought that the down markers were never moved because there was not a dead ball so there was never a change of possession (technically).

If there is an interception (or fumble), it is considerd a change of posession as soon as the defensive player gets posession of the ball. The offense gets a new set of downs where they recovered the fumble. Both teams are then credited with turnovers.

It was always my understanding that Team A would have 1st and 10 on their own 15. Even though there was never a dead ball, possession changes the instant the ball is "in possession" by a player of the opposing team.

I believe Team A would get a fresh set of downs because there was a change of possession.

They are correct. There's a change of possession , team A now takes over on 1st down.

Jeremy is correct

If you have to ask this question you obviously don't know that much about football. This could happen in a high school game or a kiddie game. Team A lost possesion of the ball when Team B intercepted it, when it was fumbled again and Team A picked up it became their ball. 1st and 10 at the 15. Not 4th and 35 because their was a change in possesion once that ball was intercepted by team b team became the defense.